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Ambassador Baptist Church
1926 Babcock Blvd
Pittsburgh, PA 15209
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clear.gif - 808 Bytes Question:

clear.gif - 808 Bytes "And everyone who will speak a word against the Son of Man, it shall be forgiven him; but he who blasphemes against the Holy Spirit, it shall not be forgiven him". (Luke 12:10) What does this verse really mean? I hope it doesn't mean what I think it does, or I am destined for Hell regardless of my faith.
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While there is some debate about what is being referred to in Luke 12:10, I believe that the parallel passages in Matt 12 and Mark 3 shed some light on this. In Mark 3:30, it is recorded that Christ spoke about the "unpardonable sin" in response to the statement of the scribes that He had "an unclean spirit". In verse 22, the scribes had said, concerning Jesus, that: "He hath Beelzebub, and by the prince of the devils casteth out devils". Christ refutes this by a logical argument in verses 23-27. Then, in the same context, he speaks about the unpardonable sin.

What Christ did on this earth was done in harmony with, and through the power of, the Third Person of the Trinity. Isaiah 11:2 prophesied that "the Spirit of the Lord shall rest upon Him". In Luke 4:18, Christ stated that "The Spirit of the Lord is upon Me". In John 3:34 it is said that God gave "not the Spirit by measure unto Him"; meaning that the Holy Spirit rested fully upon Christ at all times. In Acts 10:38, Peter taught that "God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost".

When the scribes made their foolish accusation, they were stating that what the Holy Spirit was doing was actually being done by the Devil himself. Thus the context seems to indicate that this blasphemy of the Holy Ghost involved the specific sin of ascribing to Satan the works of the Holy Spirit. It involves more than simply cursing, or even cursing at the Holy Spirit, although some do believe that is what is being taught here.

Some have questioned whether or not this sin can be committed today, in light of the fact that Christ is no longer walking physically among us. It is their opinion that this sin was only committed when it referred to things that Jesus Himself was doing through the Holy Spirit. I do not know if this is correct. It certainly seems to be a possibility, for the epistles never warn people again about this terrible sin. Perhaps that is because the resurrection had already occurred, so the sin could no longer be committed.

I believe the concern given in your letter indicates that you have not committed this sin, if it can indeed be committed today. You seem to be convicted by whatever it was that you did, and someone who was not being dealt with by the Holy Spirit would never be convicted, for the Spirit's job is to "reprove (convict) the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment (John 16:8). In addition, you mention that your faith would not matter. If you had committed this sin, you would not have faith. Eph 2:8 indicates that we are saved by grace through faith "and that (the faith) not of yourselves: it is the gift of God". God would not give the gift of faith to someone who could not be saved.

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Dr Mark Montgomery
Ambassador Baptist Church
1926 Babcock Blvd
Pittsburgh, PA 15209

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