Response:

Matthew 19 gives the Biblical teaching on the subject of divorce. In verse three, the Pharisees approach Christ with a question designed to get him to alienate Himself from a portion of the religious leaders. There were two different schools of thought on the subject of divorce during that time, both of which followed the teachings of a specific rabbi. One school believed that divorce was allowable only for sexual immorality. The other school believed that divorce was allowable for any "uncleanness", such as bad cooking, poor attitude, etc. If the husband wasn't pleased, the woman could be divorced. The Pharisees wanted Christ to pick one of these two opinions, and thus further offend those who disagreed.

Christ's answer surprises them. He makes it clear in verses 4-6 that marriage is a permanent relationship. He takes them back to the Garden of Eden to show God's intentions. They are to cleave (stick tightly together) to each other. They are one (an indivisible number) flesh. God put them together, and man does not have the right to put them apart. This is clearly a teaching that marriage is for keeps.

The Pharisees realize this, for their question in verse 7 calls Christ to task for "violating" the law of Moses (Deut 24:1-2). Jesus responds by giving the reason for Moses's writing, which was the hardness of the Jew's hearts. History tells us that the Jews of Moses's day were divorcing their wives for any and all reasons, and doing it by informing the wife that she was divorced, and throwing her out of the house. Moses wrote a law requiring men to at least go through a legal procedure which would force them to think about what they were doing, and might save some of these marriages which would otherwise be broken. But Jesus makes it clear that divorce was never the intention of God. Malachi 2:16 shows that God hates divorce, and He would certainly not recommend something that He hates.

In verse 9, Christ teaches that if a person gets divorced, and then remarries, he/she is an adulterer. If someone marries another who has been divorced, he/she is also an adulterer. These are strong words, but they are the words of the Lord.

This brings us to the so called "exception clause". Christ says here, "except it be for fornication". It is interesting to note that the parallel passages in Luke 16:18 and Mark 10:2-12 do not include this "exception clause". I believe the reason for this is that Matthew is a particularly Jewish book, written to Jews to present Christ as the King of the Jews. I believe that this exception clause refers to a uniquely Jewish custom. Matthew 1:18-20 shows us this custom. When Mary conceived Jesus, and it became obvious that she was pregnant, Joseph decided to "put her away". He was planning to divorce her, but verse 18 clearly says that they were not yet married! They were espoused. In verse 20, Mary is called his "wife", yet they are not married. This is because the Jewish custom of betrothal meant that when a man and woman became espoused, they were considered to be man and wife even though they were not officially married and did not have any physical relationship. In order to break this espousal, a divorce had to be granted. Thus, Jews could get divorced even though they were not married! This is what Christ is talking about.

Back in Matthew 19:9, Christ gives an exception for "fornication". If He was referring to extramarital sex by a married person, why did He not use the word "adultery", which He uses later in the verse? The reason is that He is not referring to extramarital sex by a married person. He is referring to premarital sex by an espoused person! It is clear that a married person who gets divorced and remarries commits "adultery" Why? Because he is married, and he is violating his marriage, and the Word of God, by having a relationship with another woman. The person who marries the divorced individual is having a relationship with a married person. That is adultery. The exception clause says "fornication". This is a broad term, which certainly applies more to premarital relations than extramarital relations. Adultery is a specific term, and Christ does not use it in the exception clause.

It is clear that the disciples knew that Christ was teaching the permanency of marriage, because their question in verse 10 could be worded this way: "If we can't get divorced, why would we want to get married?" Also, it is illogical to think that Christ would teach that marriage is permanent in verse 4-6, and then change His mind in verse 9.

I Corinthians 7 adds to this teaching. In verse 10, no divorce is allowed. In verse 11, if divorce occurs, no remarriage is allowed. In verse 15, if the unbelieving spouse leaves, the believing spouse can't make them stay. But verse 27 teaches that if you are married, don't seek a divorce. If you are divorced, don't seek remarriage. Verse 39 teaches that the marriage vows last as long as the spouse is alive, and only death dissolves them. Then, and only then, remarriage can take place, of course only under the leadership of the Lord.

I hope this answers your question. May the Lord bless you.

By Dr Mark Montgomery Ambassador Baptist Church 1926 Babcock Blvd Pittsburgh, PA 15209 (412)477-3210